Print Friendly, PDF & Email

Question:
Must we use unleavened bread in communion? I know the “Lord’s Supper” is a “type” of the “Passover”. I know they used unleaved bread in the Old Testament and we have examples of that in the New Testament. Is it a “sin” to use regular bread today? We don’t use “wine” today, just grape juice. Are we picking the parts we want?

Answer:

It is correct to say that the “Biblical example” was unleavened bread for Communion because indeed it was; that is not an argued fact. There is plenty of historical, culture and Jewish history to confirm it.
Because of all the obvious symbolism, I would argue strongly for the use of unleavened bread, but I would never classify it as doctrine; nor would I go so far as to call it a sin to use other types of bread.
It is our “example” and absent a direct command in Scripture, we should stop short of commanding its use; however, I would always argue VERY strongly for its use if possible because of the example and symbology.
There is a CHASM between saying something is an example, a suggestion, and even to arguing that it SHOULD be used – to jumping all the way to saying it is command – or a sin not to use it.
It is not commanded – so it is not a sin to do otherwise unless you violate your conscience. Given the incredible symbology, we should not shy away from teaching Christians about unleavened bread which of course goes all the way back to Jewish feasts.
We are far too quick to declare “sin” and “not sin” about things that the Bible simply does not definitively declare. We do this about Church particulars, peripheral doctrines and religious traditions. It’s amazing how many things we make “essential to salvation” or “essential for fellowship” when the Bible declares only a short list of “essentials” – and grace-filled liberty in all else.

PS: WHAT ARE YOUR QUESTIONS FOR ME? Ask here. To give a gift of support, click here.